Analysis Problem of the Day 33

Today’s problem is Problem 3 on the Texas A&M August 2017 Analysis Qual:

Problem 3: Construct a sequence f_n \geq 0 of L^1 functions on [0,1] such that f_n \to 0 a.e. and f_n \rightharpoonup 1 in L^1, i.e. for any interval [a,b], \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_a^b f(x)dx = b-a.


Solution: Our motivation comes from a famous example of a weakly converging sequence – namely, \sin(nx) \rightharpoonup 0. We will thus try to create a function rapidly oscillating on every interval, yet which tends pointwise a.e. to 0. Define g_j(x) = 2^j \chi_{[1-2^{-j},1]}(x) and h_n(x) := \sum_{i=0}^{2^n-1} g_n(2^n x-i). That is, split [0,1] into intervals of length 2^n and put a copy of g_n(x) in each interval. Then, the measure of the support of h_n is 2^{n} (2^{-n} 2^{-n}) = 2^{-n} \to 0, so h_n \to 0 a.e. However, for any interval [a,b] and large n there are 2^n (b-a)+O(1) subintervals of length 2^{-n} contained inside it, over each of which the integral is 2^{-n}, so

    \[\int_a^b h_n(x) dx \to \sum_{I \cap [a,b] \not = \varnothing} \int_I h_n(x)dx= 2^n (b-a) 2^{-n} +O(2^{-n}) \to b-a,\]

showing the required properties.

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