Analysis Problem of the Day 51

Today’s problem appeared as Problem 3 on the UCLA Fall 2021 Analysis Qual:

Problem 3: Let \phi: [0,1] \to [0,1] be Borel measurable. Show that there exists a Borel subset B \subseteq \phi([0,1]) such that \mu(\phi^{-1}(B))=1 (Hint: \phi([0,1]) need not be Borel).


Solution: This is quite a tricky problem if one does not go off of anything. However, we do have a general result for measurable functions known as Lusin’s theorem, which states that one may restrict a measurable function to a set of arbitrarily large measure and get a continuous function. Thus, let E_n be a sequence of such sets s.t. \mu(E_n)\to 1, \phi|_{E_n} is continuous. By the regularity of the Lebesgue measure, one may approximate from below by compact sets, so we may assume that the E_n are compact. Then, \phi(E_n) \subseteq \phi([0,1]) are compact, so B:=\bigcup_n \phi(E_n) is Borel and \phi^{-1}(B) \supseteq \bigcup_n E_n, so since \mu(\bigcup_n E_n) =1, \mu(\phi^{-1}(B))=1 as desired.

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